"The Father loves (AGAPA -- from AGAPE) the Son and has placed everything in his hands."
Then we'll examine a very similar sentence a couple of chapters later:
"For the Father loves (PHILEI -- from PHILEO) the Son and shows him all he does" (Joh 5:20).
Both verbs are linguistically in the same "slot" in the sentence, with the same Greek syntactic structure (for those interested-- ind. pres. act. 3PS), and fulfilling the same semantic role. If AGAPE and PHILEO were automatically different kinds of love -- by virtue of the words alone -- you would not expect to find this kind of synonymous usage in the NT writings. But there it is for all to see. In some passages of Scripture PHILEO and AGAPE simply stand for the same thing; the contexts provide the clues as to actual meaning. Not some contrived definitions which do not match the biblical evidence.