I have a Messianic Jewish FB friend who does not believe
that he / she needs to obey the Law in its particulars, but rather casts the
Law as a Bronze Age God-to-Israel-given document, suited in specifics only for
that time. I reminded my FB friend that Jacob [aka "James"] warned
against people judging (i.e. negatively evaluating) the Law. Rather, Jesus'
half-brother said that we should be "doer[s] of the law" and not its
judge (Jam 4:11). In response, my Messianic Jewish FB friend wrote the
following:
> I don't think James was refering
> to the law of Moses when he said
> not to judge your brother or you're
> judging the law.
What follows is my response to my FB friend:
________________________
Oh, but he was referring to the Law of Moses there.
Jacob [aka "James"] only uses the Greek term
νόμος / NOMOS / "Law" [or "law"] ten times in his letter --
1:25; 2:8; 2:9; 2:10; 2:11; 2:12; and four times in 4:11. In Jam 2:8-14, Jacob
quotes from Lev 19:18, describing it as “the royal law found in Scripture.” He
deliberately joins his discussion of the “royal law” of “love” with the Law’s
condemnation of partiality. Thus, by introducing the words “but if you show
partiality;” Jacob shows that he had in mind the command that came a few lines
before Lev. 19:18, in 19:15 --
"You shall not be partial to the poor or defer to
the great, but in righteousness shall you judge your neighbor."
In fact, it can be demonstrated that Jacob was doing a
MIDRASH of Lev 19 throughout his letter. Please take note:
Lev 19:12 “Do not swear falsely by my name ...”
Jam 5:12 “Do not swear ...”
Lev 19:13 “Do not hold back the wages of a hired man
overnight ..."
Jam 5:4 “Behold, the wages you failed to pay the workman
who mowed your fields are crying out against you."
Lev 19:15 “Do not show partiality ...”
Jam 2:1 “Do not show partiality ...” [Also 2:9 “If you
show partiality ...”]
Lev 19:16 “Do not go about spreading slander ...”
Jam 4:11 “Do not slander one another, brothers ...”
Lev 19:17b “Rebuke your neighbor frankly so you will not
share in his guilt.”
Jam 5:20 “Know that whoever turns a sinner back from his
error will save him from death and cover a multitude of sins.”
Lev 19:18b “You shall love your neighbor as yourself.”
Jam 2:8 “You shall love your neighbor yourself."
It is precisely this MIDRASHIC linking [via GIZERA SHAVA]
of Lev 19:15 with Lev 19:18 that produces his application to his Jewish
Christian audience (Jam 1:1). Jacob deliberately made reference to keeping “the
whole Law” (Jam 2:10) "found in Scripture” (2:8). It is the Mosaic Law he
had in mind. Furthermore, please notice the multiple allusions in just Jam 1:25
--
"But the one who looks into the perfect Law [Psa
19:7], the Law of liberty [Psa 119:45], and perseveres [Lev 18:5], being no
hearer who forgets but a doer who acts [Exo 24:7 -- נַעֲשֶׂ֥ה וְנִשְׁמָֽע
"we shall do and we shall hear"], he will be blessed in his doing [Psa
1:1ff; Psa 119:1]. "
Liberty is not exemption from God's commandments in the
Law. It is a harmony of our wills with God's commandments that produces the
effects of liberty: "I will walk about in liberty, for I have sought out
your precepts" (Psa 119:45).
> But even if he was....
Hedging our bets, are we? In case I pulled one of these
.^.^. :)
> let me just say that I affirm that
> the law of Moshe is good, holy,
> and true - when used properly.
> What that means is that it was
> proper for it to be given to those
> to whom it was given - bronze
> age Hebrews.
That's not what Paul meant in Rom 7:12, and you know it!
He wasn't a bronze age Hebrew. He was a post-Socrates, post-Plato,
post-Aristotle Jew, who knew about democratic Greek culture. He was born in
Tarsus, a university town. Steeped in Greek culture in his earliest years, till
he went to Jerusalem to study and stay. No, brother Paul meant that the Law is
good, holy, and righteous because it is a written expression of God's will for
His covenant people. The problem is never the Law. It is always us.
> It's also useful for us who have
> believed in Christ, for it testifies
> of Him ...
True enough the Law testifies of Jesus Christ, but he
didn't replace it with himself. It is still "profitable for teaching, for
reproof, for correction, and for training in righteousness, so that the man
[and woman] of God may be complete, equipped for every good work" (2Tim
3:16,17). The Law. In its particulars. "Training in righteousness."
:)
> ... and it testifies of ANOTHER law -
> the law of the Spirit of life in Christ
> Jesus, that is written on hearts, instead
> of tablets of stone.
It's *not* another Law. The Law written on our hearts as
a benefit of the New Covenant (Jer 31:33) is *the same Law* that Israel
violated repeatedly, which got them sent into exile. In fact, *every time* God
said "My Law" in Jeremiah, He meant the Law of Moses (Jer 6:19; 9:13;
16:11; 26:4; 44:10). Every time!
The Law of Moses is not "the law of sin and
death" (Rom 8:2). That is an effect of the Law, when it is misused (Rom
10:3). Through Christ's death, resurrection, and ascension, we, past enemies of
God, are forgiven and through faith in Jesus Christ die, rise, and ascend with
him, in covenant. The same Spirit who raised Christ from the dead is given to
us, creating the effect of "the law of the Spirit who gives life"
(8:2). The result is not a new Law, but a new and better way for us to meet
"the righteous requirement of the Law," not by "walk[ing]
according to the flesh" -- the way that we did when unregenerate --
"but [by walking] according to the Spirit" (Rom 8:4). That word
"walking" περιπατοῦσιν / PERIPATOUSIN is an *action word*, something
we do. And it hails back to the concept and practice of HALAKHAH, which as you
know means "[how we are to] walk" in reference to the Law. How we are
to apply the Law's commandments in day to day life. Resisting God's good and
holy and righteous Law is a symptom that something is wrong with us (Rom 8:7).
Hmmm ...
-Michael Millier
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